Question: If Martindale believes meaning is only created at the final observer, how much power does that leave the author over the tone, perceived meaning, and impact of the text?
Comment: I initially thought this would be more of a debate between two perspectives, because that's what the first paragraphs seemed to establish, but it's mostly just a single, consistent argument that contains a quickly-refuted counterargument.
Quote: "We do not merely interpret 'Homer' by the light of our taste, since the Homeric poems have themselves contributed to the formation of that taste." (pg. 6)